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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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% p5 K, v- \# t* BProof: , r2 _6 F M1 v9 ^
Let n >1 be an integer 7 R- {, k% L6 }6 z
Basis: (n=2)
- A$ ]# J2 z/ I8 Y* ?5 h% _ 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3" ^4 V* A) r7 U9 D* z, X3 A" _
5 C( u6 `' z2 \' z& x6 V$ LInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that; f# r" M& q$ h; l7 n9 I
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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; m6 j/ J9 i8 A! z1 aNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 30 K( u2 s) {4 |% S1 {5 V1 \; g4 s
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem+ l; l$ ~! Y; n; Z) r
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1): c- U5 t! N' D' Q- y3 |, v" k7 x
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K% ^, G! ~" w$ z
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
8 D8 l" d( }1 M1 I( d2 I+ q8 j6 f = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. m$ B E; M; K5 z) Sby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
$ \0 g. J! Q& p* c* TSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)0 j3 N1 F0 }1 J* J! p5 f- C
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 \2 M. A/ ~3 j0 d* S4 _6 m& w
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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8 T' t/ Z3 n- O" pConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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. p+ K" U, E. R, p, ^" ?' Z: L[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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