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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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$ p% u. R: i+ q) b4 ?0 x4 \Proof: 4 P$ u- } P2 Y/ d1 F
Let n >1 be an integer . b" ^) L. @* `9 M0 d
Basis: (n=2)+ d# U. R* @1 f& n' } f) z8 X+ k
2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 38 A0 y8 y& l7 h! F: {1 Z6 U
2 J3 p9 n; k& Z; p7 lInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that6 M, _% ~* M+ e; y7 C
K^3 – K can by divided by 3., Q4 c3 z$ E& O+ \5 Z# ^% Q
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Now, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3 a$ R( N2 v* D, `. R0 H/ P
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem2 i2 p" w) @, c: O4 S: ]' H
Then we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
' o, N( M9 i: L: b" D1 Z = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K
9 t3 k3 k" L7 h7 c) [4 c \ = ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)4 U/ z6 P* d4 }
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
" w7 ]5 f! T9 U7 d& W5 J$ iby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
b. s( s/ W7 }; V: P/ o: eSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
$ F: U, F/ ~2 L4 q9 v5 S1 S = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K) a( ^0 A$ p; Y2 j
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
8 t g1 q2 x5 @: m7 i! e! Z3 v8 e" k1 N/ K5 L; s3 ], K, `
Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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