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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)
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% ^) X# `. ]% ?Proof: / p( A M0 v; o4 D8 J; ^1 M. v) U
Let n >1 be an integer
8 ]/ |. G6 G5 W1 t* ZBasis: (n=2)
% I! a# `1 [: |3 c3 c* a& ? 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 34 u- j+ ]! y# Q! O; O8 @; Y# b
& Y4 C" m4 [0 T7 [# sInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that6 A/ G! ~7 n2 Y! n) i3 N
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.: R; ]7 R+ a5 g( A: N
% L `7 d A- J8 k$ R, VNow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3# d$ M, ~; a- g/ @% U: H" j
since we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
* T* f5 i- E0 b& `! L0 `& T2 KThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)9 o+ u ?' {$ o8 F
= K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K4 ]1 T- L2 b Y, K0 ^* r: E
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K)
: r4 ?6 h0 b0 q1 B = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
; T( N% E7 u4 U+ g" P" g- zby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0. E) c" i1 r' P
So we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)7 k9 p4 c" @6 p3 I" C
= 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K), D$ F/ Q7 }. _5 d/ [5 C8 d
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 3
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Conclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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