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This can by done by Induction
Show that for all integers n >1, n^3 - n can be divided by 3. (Note: n^3 stands for n*n*n)' @2 h- O1 H) I" R6 D6 X
+ g* ]/ O3 @# W0 s! FProof: + k3 s. f" a! a) r* h( }9 A# ], Z
Let n >1 be an integer
3 v8 B5 L+ U" `) z2 j9 uBasis: (n=2)
! r! \; C6 m& u( i+ V 2^3 - 2 = 2*2*2 –2 = 6 which can be divided by 3
$ K& ?6 M6 v& w
" `+ \5 [' x+ f5 P9 Q# @8 D& MInduction Hypothesis: Let K >=2 be integers, support that! T( \" @0 M+ G1 }/ }
K^3 – K can by divided by 3.
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3 V7 J! B+ o9 T- ENow, we need to show that ( K+1)^3 - ( K+1) can be divided by 3
1 { C! q. C. Z% b; Y0 y r% rsince we have (K+1)^3 = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 by Binomial Theorem
7 H+ D, B+ g& iThen we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = K^3 +3K^2 + 3K +1 –(K+1)
k# v' e$ h5 I6 v6 i' I! |: I% K = K^3 + 3K^2 + 2K- f- k2 D% @/ N! I
= ( K^3 – K) + ( 3K^2 + 3K), d% S; F$ i1 a! }! b
= ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
. _9 R4 o! n2 L/ I7 Hby Induction Hypothesis, we know that k^3 – k can by divided by 3 which means that k^3 – k = 3 X for some integer X>0
3 \1 E/ T1 n3 W& ^" B7 N% y" uSo we have (K+1)^3 – ( K+1) = ( K^3 – K) + 3 ( K^2 + K)
- ?( K" h# c Y# B = 3X + 3 ( K^2 + K) Z" I& F5 h1 X$ y- J4 ?. {
= 3(X+ K^2 + K) which can be divided by 34 X' I. W7 B0 d/ J# Q" K
/ h3 ^6 m& \) a, yConclusion: By the Principle of Mathematics Induction, n^3 - n can be divided by 3 For all integers n >1.
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) q7 f5 r+ F6 g[ Last edited by 悟空 on 2005-2-23 at 10:06 AM ] |
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